Let's call Stalin's policy, of interfering in German politics in favor of the Communists, which got Hitler elected, the Stalin Fallacy.
Has Putin committed the Stalin Fallacy, by manipulating US elections to favor Trump directly, yet for the purpose of adversely affecting only US domestic stability, just as Stalin did inadvertantly for Hitler by favoring only the German Communists?
I think not, for a variety of reasons.
I think not, for a variety of reasons.
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