If modern humans replaced various archaic human populations in both Europe and Asia, relatively suddenly, and the cause was not natural selection, which he has ruled out previously, and also not the innovation of stone tools of a certain type, which he has also ruled out, and not the mixing of neanderthals and denisovans with them, which was relatively small, why infer that it must have been something like inventiveness and adaptability, when the populations they replaced had survived and intermixed for almost 2 million years before their arrival based on qualities of inventiveness and adaptability, and when the very invention of advanced stone age tools has nevertheless been demonstrated not to be the cause of their success?
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