1. The West, because of genetics and history, innovation and openness, achieved far more than other civilizations. p 9.
2. China was the most advanced civilization (because of genetics and history, innovation and openness?) until 1800. p. 12
3. Islam in 1500 surpassed the West (because of genetics and history, innovation and openness?) in most respects. p 12.
What is Wade missing here?
It seems to me that Wade cannot have it all three ways, or even any two ways, even though he asserts that the West rose unexpectedly as a counterpart to Islamic and Sinic puzzling civilizational decline. If social behavior can evolve, why can it not evolve into decline? If social behavior has a genetic component, why should it not be suseptible to devolution?
He is not arguing that the rise of the West caused the decline of either China or Islam. These multiple processes appear to be coincidental.
Wade really can have it only one way.
Take your pick.
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